Microbiology 509
Name: _____________________________________
Place your name at the top of each page.
There are 37 questions
Each question is worth the same amount
Remember: distinguish compared items by linking descriptions to terms (e.g., the sky isblue).
Unless requested, do not multiply out expressions (e.g., stop at 2*5003 rather than 2.5x108).
I encourage you to ask questions during the exam, but do so discretely.
Remember to use safe, i.e., unambiguous & well-articulated answers whenever possible.
Above all, avoid jumping to profoundly incorrect conclusions: make sure you actually read a question (all of it) before you answer, and then make sure you are actually answering what it is you are being asked.
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(1) __________ is a name for the general category of human diseases that possess animal reservoirs.
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(2) Antibiotics that bind to the bacterial ribosome, but not the eucaryote ribosome, interfere with bacterial metabolism by inhibiting _________ synthesis (i.e., the normal catalytic function of both bacterial and eucaryotic ribosomes). A: protein (chapter 13) |
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(3) Contamination is the converse of __________ while infection is the actual growth of pathogens in or on body tissues. A: Sterility (chapter 14) |
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(4) During which stage of an illness would you expect the body would contain the most living pathogenic organisms? (i) Acme (ii) Convalescence (iii) Incubation (iv) Prodromal (v) Sequelae
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(5) For an antibiotic, which is typically higher: (i) Dosage achieved when prescription is prematurely terminated (ii) Dosage that more likely promotes the development of resistance (iii) Minimum inhibitory concentration (iv) Therapeutic dosage level (v) Toxic dosage level
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(6) Glutaraldehyde, formaldehyde, and ethylene oxide are all examples of disinfectants that work by acting as __________ agents. (i) Alkylating (ii) Halogenating (iii) Inducing (iv) Oxidizing (v) Reducing
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(7) If bacteria normally mutate to antibiotic resistance at a rate of 1 in 100 million (i.e., 1 / 108), per antibiotic, then a bacteria population exposed to two independently acting antibiotics would have to be what size before we would expect the population to contain a bacterium that is simultaneously resistant to both antibiotics? (i) 108 bacteria (ii) 1064 bacteria (iii) 8 bacteria (iv) 16 bacteria (v) 104 bacteria (vi) 1016 bacteria
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(8) Important for preventing transmission of pathogens in clinical settings are aseptic technique, the employment of barriers, introspection, good management, and __________.
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(9) In which general category of symbiosis is one member (of the symbiosis) considered neither harmed nor benefited?
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(10) Indirect contact transmission occurs via the handling of _________. (which is a general term rather than specific items such as dirty linens, e.g., sheets)
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(11) Mechanisms of disinfection often include protein denaturation, membrane disruption, inhibition of metabolism, and __________.
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(12) Mutation-mediated resistance is particularly associated with: (i) Acquired resistance (ii) Evasion (iii) Inactivation of antibiotic by hydrolysis (iv) ß-lactamase (v) The bacterial chromosome
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(13) Name a vehicle and corresponding portal of entry.
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(14) Name two halogens.
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(15) Organisms in what phase of growth in the standard bacterial growth curve typically are the most susceptible to disinfection?
A: Exponential (chapter 12) |
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(16) Staphylococcal food poisoning is caused by __________ (circle best answer) (i) an enterotoxin (ii) a neurotoxin (iii) a microtoxin (iv) Staphylococcus aureus infection (v) all of the above (vi) none of the above
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(17) Tetracycline (i) Acts at the bacterial ribosome (ii) Disrupts cell membranes (iii) Inhibits cell-wall synthesis (iv) Is a ß-lamtam antibiotic (v) Is effective against herpes infections
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(18) The charge associated with an ionized quat is (i) Both positive and negative (ii) Sometimes positive, sometimes negative (iii) Negative (iv) Positive (v) Nonexistent
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(19) The route through which a pathogen enters our bodies is called its __________ of entry.
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(20) The Universal Precautions were initially developed specifically to prevent the transmission of what general category of pathogens?
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(21) What does "synergism" (or "synergy") mean?
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(22) What is meant when an antibiotic is described as being selectively toxic?
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(23) What is microbial competition (a.k.a., microbial antagonism)?
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(24) What is the cleanliness effect in the disinfection of, for example, surfaces?
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(25) What is the difference between a propagated epidemic and an epidemic (outbreak) that has a common source?
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(26) What is the minimum temperature one normally applies dry heat to sterilize something?
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(27) What is the mode of antibiotic action displayed by cephalosporin?
A: disruption of cell-wall synthesis (chapter 13) |
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(28) What is vertical transmission?
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(29) What properties must a substance possess to be considered a surfactant?
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(30) What property (as opposed to location of use) distinguishes antiseptics from disinfectants?
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(31) Which are more likely to lead to superinfections? (i) Acyclovir (ii) Antifungals (iii) Broad-spectrum antibiotics (iv) Narrow spectrum antibiotics (v) Semisynthetic drugs
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(32) Which has the greatest likelihood of being the most pathogenic of the following? (i) A fully attenuated pathogen (ii) Commensals (and not opportunists) (iii) Indigenous microflora (and not opportunists) (iv) Non-communicable pathogens (v) Organisms with a virulence of zero
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(33) Which is not a category of disease? (i) Acute (ii) Focal (iii) Inapparent (iv) Septicemia (v) Toxoid
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(34) Which is not an exotoxin, derived from an exotoxin, or a disease that results from an exotoxin? (i) Botulism (ii) Enterotoxin (iii) Lipopolysaccharide (iv) Neurotoxin (v) Tetanous toxoid
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(35) Which is not typically involved in an infection (i) Adherence (ii) Colonization (iii) Contact (iv) Invasion (v) Toxoid
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(36) Which is of least concern as an etiology of nosocomical infections? i) Campylobacter (ii) Escherichia (iii) Enterococcus (iv) Pseudomonas (v) Staphylococcus
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(37) Which method of bacteria preservation is listed twice? (circle both) (i) Desiccation (ii) Freeze drying (iii) Freezing (iv) lyophilization (v) Refrigeration A: (ii) Freeze drying / (iv) lyophilization (I'll also accept dessication as one of the pair) (chapter 12) |